I love 1 John 3:1 in NIV and TNIV, especially the first part:
How great is the love the Father has lavished on us, that we should be called children of God! (NIV)
See what great love the Father has lavished on us, that we should be called children of God! (TNIV)
There is something wonderful about the thought that the Father has lavished his love on us, and I mean in the idea, not just in the alliteration. But is this translation justified? The word translated “has lavished” is dedoken, which is just the normal Greek word for “has given”. There is nothing in the text to suggest the extra generosity implied by the word “lavish”.
Also potapos doesn’t really mean “how great” or “what great”. In classical Greek it meant “from what country”, and I’m sure that preachers could craft a nice creative sermon from that thought. But in Koine Greek it seems to have meant more like “what kind of”, although Barclay Newman suggests the gloss “what wonderful” for this verse and for Mark 13:1.
So in this case the more prosaic ESV rendering is actually better justified by the text:
See what kind of love the Father has given to us, that we should be called children of God; … (ESV)
To me, this illustrates the danger of allowing literary flourishes like “love … lavished” to have precedence over accurate rendering of the meaning.