This week I have been checking translation of the book of 1 John in another language. I actually check a literal English back translation, so I don’t have to know anything about that language. Here is approximately how 1 John 2:2 is back translated to English in this translation:
He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for our sins but also for the sins of the whole world which have been atoned for.
There is possibly a serious translation issue with this translation. It looks like the translation does not reflect what the Greek text actually says. Can you spot the issue?
What relationship might the translation, as it stands, have with any possible theological position?
(We don’t know yet why the verse was translated as it was. It may turn out that there is simply some repetition required by the rules of the translation language. We’ll find out the answer to my question to the team when I get their response. I add this parenthesis because of our blogging guideline not to impute wrong motives to translation teams. I am not suggesting wrong motives on the part of this team. It may turn out to be a perfectly accurate translation without any theological bias. But we do need to be able to spot translation problems that *might* be based on theological bias, without accusing a team of wrong motives before we hear from them, something which has often happened with criticism of some English Bible translations.)