For a general English audience, would it be better to translate the Greek normally translated as “He who has ears to hear, let him hear” into:
Let this be a word to the wise?
One thing going for it is that the original is an idiom and so is the translation. Is the meaning accurate? If not, in what ways is it not accurate? In what ways is “he who has ears to hear, let him hear” not accurate?
For reference, here are the places I found in which the phrase “ears to hear” appears in the rather literal NASB:
What are your thoughts?